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123 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What functional group is polar and can act as a weak acid by donating a proton at neutral pH?

Carboxyl group

A cell engulfs an organism, enclosing it in a vesicle. The organism is partially digested in that vesicle. The cell then expels the indigestible waste through the membrane. The cell is using:

phagocytosis followed by exocytosis

During what stage of cellular respiration is the most ATP synthesized?

The electron transport chain and chemiosmosis

What type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steriods?

the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

The side chain (R group) of the amino acid serine is -CH2-OH. The side chain of the amino acid leucine is -CH2-CH-(CH3)2. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?

Serine would be on the exterior and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein.

Hydrogen bond are formed

when hydrogen is part of a polar bond

The end product of glycolysis is


In an energetically closed system at a constant temperature, the reversible reaction xy <->zw occurs. If the free energy of xy = 6 and that of zw = 12, then

xy->zw will occur spontaneously

What aspect of triglyceride structure accounts for their insolubility in water?

The C-H bonds in fatty acids

Animals store glucose in the form of


Which of the atoms would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1?

One with one valence electron

How many water molecules would be produced from the dehydration reactions associated with making a protein that has a primary structure consisting of 101 amino acids and a quaternary structure of 2 identical subunits?


During chemiosmosis in aerobic respiration, protons are pumped

out of the matrix into the intermembrane space of the mitochondria

Which three components are present in AMP?

sugar, phosphate group, nitrogenous base

Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

Carboxyl and amino

How many high-energy bonds does ATP have?


Which of the following statements about enzyme catalyzed reactions is true?

The rate of the reaction is greater than when the same reaction occurs in the absence of an enzyme.

A molecule containing carbon and oxygen would

be likely to dissolve in water

Noncompetitive inhibitors function to

alter the shape of an enzyme

During facilitated transport, solute is transported across the membrane

at a rate that can, sometimes, be limited by the number of carrier proteins present in the membrane

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?


What substance is regenerated by fermentation?


A transport vesicle containing proteins from the rough endoplasmic reticulum will travel to the

cis face of the Golgi apparatus

Cells can change their shape by rapidly polymerizing and depolymerizing

microtubules and microfilaments

The ATP cycle is continuous. Which statement describes it best?

ATP hydrolysis is exergonic and is coupled to drive endergonic cellular reactions

Hydrophobic interactions occur between

methyl groups in two molecules

The sodium-potassium pump generates the following concentration gradients across the plasma membrane:

low [NA+] and high [K+] inside the cell and high [Na+] and low [K+] outside

What variables influence whether a molecule of hydrogen gas can move across a membrane by passive diffusion?

The difference in concentration of the molecule across the membrane

After electrons are harvested during reactions in the Krebs cycle

they are transferred to NAD+

Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?

Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse.

The electrochemical gradient is a form of kinetic energy used by ATP synthase.


The nucleus and mitochondria within a eukaryotic cell are bounded by double membranes.


All proteins have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of protein structure.


Enzymes decrease the activation energy for a reaction which then shifts the relative amount of reactant converted to product.


In coupled transport, one molecule moves across the membrane down its concentration gradient while a different molecule moves up its gradient, such as in the transport of glucose by Na+.


When an intracellular vesicle is formed by receptor-mediated endocytosis, the intracellular vesicle contains a mixture of different types of proteins bound to their receptors as "cargo."


A peptide bond forms when the carboxyl end of one amino acid joins to the carboxyl end of another.


Each element has a different number of protons in the nucleus.


The energy from the hydrolysis of ATP may be directly coupled to endergonic reactions by the transfer of a phosphate group to another molecule.


In water, phospholipid molecules spontaneously form a bilayer, with phosphate groups facing inward toward the middle of the bilayer and tails facing out away from the the exterior of the bilayer.


As polypeptides are formed at the ribosome, elongation continues until

a stop codon is exposed.

What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator?

continuous transcription of the operon's genes

The two strands of DNA foundin a double helix are


Activation of the MAP kinase cascade

amplifies the intracellular signal generated by ligand-receptor binding.

What functional group is found at the 5′ end of a DNA strand?

A phosphate group

During this phase of the cell cycle cells are preparing for DNA synthesis, producing new macromolecules that will be used in this process and assessing the nutritional content of a cell’s surrounding environment


If you cross a true-breeding dominant plant with a true-breeding recessive plant, what will be the phenotype of the resulting progeny?

All dominant

How many different gametes can be produced in an individual that is heterozygous for two Mendelian genes?


Blood types in humans is an example of multiple alleles for one gene. In AB blood type, neither allele is dominant. Thisis also an example of


Which of the following statements about the replication of DNA is false?

New nucleotides are added to the 3 ́ end of one strand and the 5 ́ end of the other strand.

A man with normal vision marries a color-blind woman. Red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. What proportion of their sons would be color-blind?


A man with normal vision marries a color-blind woman. Red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. They have a daughter who has normal color vision; what is the probability she is heterozygous for this gene?


Where does transcription take place?

In the nucleus

Use the provided table of codons to answer this question. A peptide has the sequence NH2-phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. Which of the following sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide?


When tryptophan (an amino acid) is present in the external medium, the bacterium brings in the tryptophan and does not need to make this amino acid. Which of the following is true when there is no tryptophan in the medium?

The repressor is inactive, and RNA polymerase moves through the operator.

What would happen to chromosomes in the absence of telomerase activity?

Chromosomes would shorten during each division.

Changing the codon AGC to AGA represents a

missense mutation

How many chromosomes go to each spindle pole during meiosis II in a normal human germ line cell?


Receptor tyrosine kinases are inactivated by


Which of the following is a characteristic or function of the protein encoded by the p53 gene?

It is a protein that monitors the integrity of replicated DNA

Refer to the drawings in Figure 10.2 of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of mitosis or meiosis. Which diagram represents anaphase II of meiosis?

Refer to the drawings in Figure 10.2 of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of mitosis or meiosis. Which diagram represents anaphase II of meiosis?

Drawing 5

Refer to the drawings in Figure 10.2 of asingle pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis. Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis?

Refer to the drawings in Figure 10.2 of asingle pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis. Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis?

Drawing 1

If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is represented by x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis II would be


When tryptophan is present in the environment ofE. coli, the tryptophan binds to the

trp repressor

A homozygous individual for dominant forms of alleles A and B and a heterozygous individual mate. What fraction of the offspring will be heterozygous for A and homozygous for the dominant form of allele B?


Different receptors can have the same effect on a cell. One reason for this is that

signal transduction pathways intersect: the same pathway can be stimulated by different receptors.

Crossing over occurs in

prophase I

A somatic cell from an organism normally contains 20chromosomes in its nucleus. How many chromosomes go to eachspindle pole during mitosis?


During this checkpoint, the accuracy of DNA replication is assessed:

the G2/M checkpoint

Hormones tend to bind to

Intracellular receptors.

What’s the probability that a single offspring of Labrador retriever from two parents (Bbee x BbEe) will be yellow(_ _ ee)?


DNA polymerase I, unlike the other DNA polymerases, has exonuclease activity that is essential during lagging strand replication to

remove the RNA primers.

Use the provided table of codons to answer this question. What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'


A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5'-CCG-ACG-3' (mRNA). The anticodon of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA during translation is:


Acetylation is themodification of thehistone tails that allows DNA to be accessible for transcription


During interphase each chromosome replicates to produce two sister chromatids.


All DNA polymerases add new bases to the 5' end of existing strands.


After mitosis, two daughter cells have a complete genome that is identical to the original cell.


Somatic and gamete-producing germ-line cells are diploid. Somatic cells undergo meiosis to produce haploid gametes and germ-line cells undergo mitosis to form genetically identical, diploid daughter cells.


In anaphase I, homologous chromosomes are drawn toward opposite poles. In mitotic anaphase, sister chromatids are drawn to opposite poles.


In an inducible operon, the regulatory protein is synthesized in inhibitory form.


All G proteins are active when bound to GTP and inactive when bound to GDP.


A sex linked trait is usually one determined by a gene carried on the Y chromosome.


Transfer RNA has two functional regions, one that is covalently attached to an amino acid, and the other that can base-pair with DNA.


The human genome is completely sequenced and all errors and gaps have been filled in or corrected thanks to the 200+ labs that worked on this effort.


During the latent phase of the HIV virus, the viral DNA becomes integrated into the host chromosome.


A recombinant DNA molecule is one that is constructed form DNA from different sources.


Viruses are alive.


A cDNA library is a set of clones each transfected with a different fragment of DNA inserted in a plasmid. The set of clones reflects the entire genome.


It is currently illegal for insurance companies and employers to request that individuals undergo genetic testing for screening purposes.


The CRISPR-Cas9 system is a major advance that enables scientists to more precisely edit specific nucleotide sequences within DNA.


Each B cell has more than one type of immunoglobulin on its surface that is capable of binding to more than one type of antigen.


PCR enables the amplification of a piece of DNA without the use of bacterial cloning.


Vaccines rely on the formation of memory cells for their immunoprotective effects.


What are the steps that occur during each cycle of PCR?

Denaturation, Primer Annealing, Synthesis

In order to clone a gene, a plasmid vector must have

An origin of replication, a selectable marker, and one or more unique restriction sites

Rejection of transplanted tissue occurs mainly because of recognition by


When creating a cDNA library, you start by

isolating mRNA from a sample of cells.

What factor upregulates the proliferation of helper T cells bound to their antigen?

the presence of interleukin-2

Prior to entry, the glycoprotein ____ of the HIV virus recognizes the ____ receptor on the surface of the macrophage.

gp120; CD4+

One day, DNA vaccines may provide a stronger immune response than traditional types of vaccines. What is a reason for this?

The DNA enters cells and is transcribed and translated to form proteins that ultimately activate cytotoxic T cells of the immune system.

The goal of antisense oligonucleotides for gene therapy is to

block translation of mRNA into protein

A primary difference between the shotgun sequencing approach and the clone by clone approach is

the use of a computer algorithm to aid in piecing sequence fragments back together.

The genetic nondiscrimination act states that

neither employers nor insurance companies are allowed to request genetic testing or information from an individual; insurance companies aren't allowed to refuse coverage based on genetic testing; employers are not allowed to make adverse employment decisions based on genetic testing.

Gene therapy treatments for SCID involve isolating a patient's stem cells, introducing the healthy copy of the adenosine deaminase gene, and injecting the fixed cells back into the body. This type of gene therapy is an example of

an ex vivo gene therapy approach.

Which of the following is a key concern with gene therapies for treating genetic disease?

Insertional mutagenesis and tumor formation and immune reactivity.

To be activated, T cells must

recognize peptide fragments bound to self-MHC proteins.

In a DNA microarray, one sample is labeled green and the other red with fluorescent dyes. If the results on a spot are yellow,

each sample has the same amount of mRNA for that gene.

Opsonization refers to a process in which

multiple copies of antibody bind to antigens on a foreign cell, macrophages bind to the tail end of antibodies bound to their antigen, and macrophage phagocytosis is enhanced.

The restriction enzyme BgIII has the recognition sequence (A*GATCT). DNA cut by which of the following restriction enzymes could be ligated to a piece of DNA cut with BgIII?

a. HindIII (A*AGCTT)

b. Pvul (CGAT*CG)

c. BamHI (G*GATCC)

d. Xbal (T*CTAGA)


Diseases in which the person's immune system no longer recognizes its own MHC proteins as "self" are called

autoimmune diseases

Some individuals have resistance to HIV due specifically to a mutation of the gene encoding for

the CCR5 receptor

Different strains of the flu virus differ in which of the following?

Envelope proteins

MHC type 1 molecules can be found on

all body cells.

Which of the following characteristics determine a virus' host range?

The proteins on its surface and that of the host.

What is the correct order of events in a generalized viral replicative cycle?

1. The virus enters the cell

2. Host enzymes replicate the viral genome

3. Enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA

What is an accurate statement about the human genome project?

The importance of this endeavor is said to be on the scale of the development of the periodic table of the elements.

The technique used to separate DNA molecules based on their length/mass is called

gel electrophoresis

AZT inhibits ______ to prevent HIV.

reverse transcription of viral RNA

The difficulty in designing a single flu vaccine that will work forever is that influenza

both mutates and undergoes antigenic shifts to form new viruses.

What determines the ability of a cell to act as an antigen presenting cell for helper T cells?

The presence of MHC II proteins

Insulin has been successfully produced in E. Coli using reombinant DNA techniques. Before they were successful, scientists have had to over come some obstacles associated with producing a human protein in E. Coli. What are stops incorporated in the final approach?

Independent production of each insulin subunit in separate populations of bacteria

Removal of all introns from the insulin gene

Fusion of the beta gal gene to the gene for each subunit chain in insulin.

Chemical linkage of the two insulin subunit chains together by a disulfide bond.

Describe how antibodies help us fight against foreign invaders?

Antibodies can activate the MAC via the complement system, neutralize toxins secreted by bacteria, enhance phagocytosis of foreign invaders by macrophages, and stimulate natural killer cells.